Medical Science Test 2 Nddc Scholarship

Medical Science Test 2 Nddc Scholarship
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Question 131

Prednisone is a potent corticosteroid. Which of the following clinical signs is NOT related to the chronic toxicity or side effects of Prednisone?
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Chronic use of high-dose corticosteroids like Prednisone leads to a range of toxicities, including the development of cataracts, skin issues like acne, and 'steroid psychosis' (mental changes). Crucially, Prednisone causes sodium and water retention, which leads to 'hypertension' (high blood pressure). Therefore, 'hypotension' (low blood pressure) is not a side effect; rather, a sudden withdrawal from Prednisone could cause an adrenal crisis, which does present with hypotension.
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Question 132

Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker. Which of the following is NOT typically a sign of Atenolol toxicity or side effect?
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Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate and reducing the force of contraction. Toxicity would therefore manifest as 'bradycardia' (slow heart rate) or heart block (AV block). Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is the opposite of the drug's intended effect and is not a sign of beta-blocker toxicity. High doses can also worsen heart failure (CHF) and cause lethargy or a 'sedative' appearance in some patients.
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Question 133

Which of the following medications is classified as a Class IA Sodium Channel blocker used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?
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Class IA antiarrhythmics include Quinidine, Procainamide, and Disopyramide. They work by blocking fast sodium channels, which slows the conduction velocity and increases the action potential duration in the heart. Amiodarone is a Class III drug (potassium channel blocker), and Mexiletine is a Class IB drug. (Note: Both C and D are Class IA, but Quinidine is the classic prototype).
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Question 134

Which of the following medications is considered a Class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
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Disopyramide is a Class IA antiarrhythmic agent. Like Quinidine and Procainamide, it blocks sodium channels and slows the electrical impulses in the heart muscle. Propafenone is Class IC, and Amiodarone is Class III.
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Question 135

Potassium-sparing diuretics (such as Spironolactone) have their primary physiological effect on which specific part of the nephron in the kidney?
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Potassium-sparing diuretics act primarily on the late distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct. They either block the aldosterone receptor (Spironolactone) or inhibit the sodium channels (Amiloride). By preventing sodium reabsorption in these final segments, they prevent the subsequent secretion of potassium into the urine, which is why they do not cause the potassium loss seen with loop or thiazide diuretics.
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Question 136

Which of the following is NOT directly related to the common toxicities or side effects associated with Nitroglycerin therapy?
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Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator used to treat angina. Its most common side effect is a severe, pounding headache caused by the dilation of cerebral blood vessels. It can also cause orthostatic hypotension (dizziness) and reflex tachycardia as the heart tries to compensate for the drop in blood pressure. Projectile vomiting is a symptom typically associated with increased intracranial pressure or pyloric stenosis, not a characteristic toxicity of nitroglycerin.
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Question 137

Ibuprofen is a Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug (NSAID). Which of the following is NOT a direct side effect or toxicity of Ibuprofen?
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NSAIDs like Ibuprofen commonly cause gastrointestinal irritation (nausea), can impair kidney function (renal dysfunction), and can cause anaemia due to chronic microscopic GI bleeding. Muscle wasting, however, is a symptom of severe malnutrition, certain muscular dystrophies, or chronic corticosteroid use (myopathy); it is not a characteristic effect of NSAID use.
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Question 138

In the human reproductive system, what is the specific anatomical location where fertilization of the egg by a sperm typically occurs?
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Fertilization normally takes place in the Fallopian tube, specifically in the ampulla, which is the widest section of the tube. After ovulation, the egg is picked up by the fimbriae of the tube and begins its journey toward the uterus. Sperm travel through the vagina and uterus to meet the egg in the tube. Once fertilized, the resulting zygote travels down to the uterus to implant.
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Question 139

Which of the following obstetric terms corresponds to the total number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome?
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The term 'Gravida' refers to a pregnant woman or the total number of pregnancies a woman has confirmed. 'Parity' refers to the number of pregnancies that reached viable gestational age (usually 20-24 weeks). For example, a woman who is currently pregnant for the second time but lost her first pregnancy at 8 weeks would be described as Gravida 2, Para 0.
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Question 140

Which of the following clinical signs, involving a bluish or purplish discolouration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa, may indicate an early pregnancy?
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Chadwick's sign is a probable sign of pregnancy that results from increased blood flow (vascular congestion) to the pelvic area, giving the cervix and vagina a characteristic blue or violet hue. Turner's sign is associated with pancreatitis (flank bruising), and Virchow's sign relates to a specific enlarged lymph node in gastric cancer.
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